So why are there directives on how to run a church in the official doctrine of this religion? If they’re only meant to be relevant to Timothy, shouldn’t they have been cut with the rest of the apocrypha?
So then the correct interpretation is that women are not to speak over men, at least in matters within the domain of the faith? And as such the OP stands at face value, no?
Ah, I read you as saying that the verse is to be taken as only relevant to Timothy. If it does indeed inform how to run Christian churches as part of the official Word, they should be followed, no?
Or is the argument that they only inform overall sect marketing strategy, just as Leviticus should only pertain if you’re to enter a church? (As it was God’s commands for Israelites to be in the presence of God)
(Let’s set aside the discussion on how to interpret context, as each denomination seem to have their own and seldom any actual historical methodology in how to form that context.)
The verse is meant to be taken, as with all things in literature, in context, to be applied to how to conduct a ministry. This passage is to say that if your ministry is in a place that sexualizes women culturally and that is a distraction for your congregation, do not sexualize women in a way that would distract them from your message. It is applicable to people other than Timothy, but the letter alleges to be written for Timothy in Ephesus originally.
Canon is still not god’s word. At least not in christianity and judaism. Its still peoples’ words except for a few sentences of the old testament or except for when Jesus is speaking in the gospels (who is still not the Father). Islam might be different.
So why are there directives on how to run a church in the official doctrine of this religion? If they’re only meant to be relevant to Timothy, shouldn’t they have been cut with the rest of the apocrypha?
B/c the religion was invented by people who run churches.
It seems pretty obvious from the context that the quote is about dis/allowing disruptions during church.
So then the correct interpretation is that women are not to speak over men, at least in matters within the domain of the faith? And as such the OP stands at face value, no?
Because the overall letters do actually inform how to run a church in context. I.e. don’t use sex and sex appeal to attract attention for your church.
Ah, I read you as saying that the verse is to be taken as only relevant to Timothy. If it does indeed inform how to run Christian churches as part of the official Word, they should be followed, no?
Or is the argument that they only inform overall sect marketing strategy, just as Leviticus should only pertain if you’re to enter a church? (As it was God’s commands for Israelites to be in the presence of God)
(Let’s set aside the discussion on how to interpret context, as each denomination seem to have their own and seldom any actual historical methodology in how to form that context.)
The verse is meant to be taken, as with all things in literature, in context, to be applied to how to conduct a ministry. This passage is to say that if your ministry is in a place that sexualizes women culturally and that is a distraction for your congregation, do not sexualize women in a way that would distract them from your message. It is applicable to people other than Timothy, but the letter alleges to be written for Timothy in Ephesus originally.
Now you’re just re-asserting your point.
Let’s not talk in circles and just end this interaction here.
Indeed, it is not apocryphal, but canon. It is part of scripture and god’s word, regardless of who said it in the text.
Canon is still not god’s word. At least not in christianity and judaism. Its still peoples’ words except for a few sentences of the old testament or except for when Jesus is speaking in the gospels (who is still not the Father). Islam might be different.