Iirc, the hebrew word that gets translated to ‘lay’ is also a pretty suspect translation. Its only other usage in the OT (and our only other known context for it) is to describe a man pursuing his wife’s servant, and contextually, is more likely to mean ‘molest’ or ‘rape’ than to describe consensual sex.
The 2 words translated to ‘man’ are also different- the first being ‘ish’ the second being ‘zachar’
While both can generally refer to anyone male, ish can be used in the context of ‘anyone’, or ‘husband/ man of the house’, whereas Zachar is often used biblically to refer to young males, and /or subordinates.
So put together, this passage is likely ‘nobody should be molesting boys,’ or ‘a master shouldn’t rape his servants or children’
Iirc, the hebrew word that gets translated to ‘lay’ is also a pretty suspect translation. Its only other usage in the OT (and our only other known context for it) is to describe a man pursuing his wife’s servant, and contextually, is more likely to mean ‘molest’ or ‘rape’ than to describe consensual sex.
The 2 words translated to ‘man’ are also different- the first being ‘ish’ the second being ‘zachar’
While both can generally refer to anyone male, ish can be used in the context of ‘anyone’, or ‘husband/ man of the house’, whereas Zachar is often used biblically to refer to young males, and /or subordinates.
So put together, this passage is likely ‘nobody should be molesting boys,’ or ‘a master shouldn’t rape his servants or children’